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Pass Your 4A0-100 Exam Easily - Real 4A0-100 Practice Dump Updated Jan 14, 2024 [Q12-Q37]

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Pass Your 4A0-100 Exam Easily - Real 4A0-100 Practice Dump Updated Jan 14, 2024

2024 Realistic Verified Free Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 Exam Questions


By passing the Alcatel-Lucent 4A0-100 Exam, candidates can demonstrate their expertise in IP networking and gain recognition as a certified Alcatel-Lucent IP network professional. Alcatel-Lucent Scalable IP Networks certification can help candidates advance their careers in network engineering or management and open up new job opportunities in the field.

 

NEW QUESTION # 12
The TiMOS-m.n.Y.Z software image file is software that:

  • A. Transfers the router configuration from the router to the network management system.
  • B. Loads the router software image.
  • C. Contains all the components required to configure and run protocols on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR/7450 ESS.
  • D. Loads the router configuration.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 13
A 24 port Ethernet switch is configured with VLAN 100 on ports 1 - 8, VLAN 200 on ports 9 - 16 and VLAN
300 on ports 17 - 24. Which of the following describes the behavior of the switch when a broadcast frame
is received on port 1?

  • A. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on ports 2 to 8.
  • B. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all 24 ports.
  • C. The switch will discard the broadcast frame because there is no specific destination address.
  • D. The switch will flood the broadcast frame on all ports on which the switch has seen frames from
    attached devices

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 14
What must occur before a LAG becomes operational?

  • A. Auto-negotiation must be set to limited or disabled on at least one member port.
  • B. All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same speed and duplex settings.
  • C. There must be multiple ports assigned to the LAG.
  • D. The duplex setting on all the ports must be forced to half.
  • E. Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 15
Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Ethernet?

  • A. It uses IP addresses to identify interfaces on the common network media.
  • B. It is part of the network interface layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite.
  • C. It uses a passive, wait-listen protocol called Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/ CD).
  • D. It is a broadcast technology that can send frames to all devices attached to shared media.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following describes the normal sequence of events in the forming of an OSPF adjacency?

  • A. DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates, Hello exchange.
  • B. Hello exchange, Link state requests and updates, DB descriptor exchange.
  • C. Link state requests and updates, Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange.
  • D. Hello exchange, DB descriptor exchange, Link state requests and updates.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?

  • A. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.
  • B. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.
  • C. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.
  • D. Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 18
Given network address 200.12.30.0 with network mask 255.255.255.0, which subnet mask can be used to create 12 subnetworks? Each subnetwork must support 10 host addresses.

  • A. /30
  • B. /26
  • C. /28
  • D. /25

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume B


NEW QUESTION # 19
What is the preference value in the routing table used for?

  • A. It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by different routing protocols.
  • B. It is used to differentiate local routes from remote routes.
  • C. It differentiates between multiple routes to a destination learned by the same protocol.
  • D. It indicates the preferred egress interface.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume A


NEW QUESTION # 20
Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?

  • A. NASA.
  • B. IBM.
  • C. Alcatel-Lucent.
  • D. Bell Labs
  • E. US Military.

Answer: E


NEW QUESTION # 21
Who was responsible for developing and publishing the original standard that was used for 10 Mbit/s Ethernet?

  • A. Digital Equipment Corporation.
  • B. Intel Corporation.
  • C. IBM.
  • D. Apple Computer.
  • E. DEC-Intel-Xerox.

Answer: E

Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation


NEW QUESTION # 22
Which of the following are correct statements about MPLS labels? (Choose 3)

  • A. Labels are locally significant to the MPLS router.
  • B. A sequence of label actions from one LER to another LER represents a logical tunnel known as an LSP.
  • C. MPLS labels may be dynamically signaled or statically assigned by the service provider.
  • D. Labels are globally significant to the MPLS network.
  • E. MPLS labels must be dynamically signaled.

Answer: A,B,C


NEW QUESTION # 23
Which statement best describes an SDP?

  • A. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service
    to an MPLS transport tunnel. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.
  • B. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the
    connection of the service to CE device. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.
  • C. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the service to
    CE device. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.
  • D. Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service
    to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 24
What is the purpose of a broadcast address?

  • A. Provides an address that refers to a single device on a given network.
  • B. Provides an address that refers to a group of devices with the same IP addresses in different Layer 2
  • C. Provides an address that refers to all the devices in a given network.
  • D. Provides an address that refers to a specific group of devices in a given network.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following about the displayed IP filter is TRUE?

  • A. TCP (protocol 6) packets with destination IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number between 666 and
    999 are forwarded.
  • B. TCP (protocol 6) packets with source IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number between 666 and 999 are dropped.
  • C. TCP (protocol 6) packets with source IP address 1.2.3.0/24 and source port number between 666 and 999 are forwarded.
  • D. TCP (protocol 6) packets with source IP address 1.2.3.0/24 or source port number between 666 and 999 are forwarded.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Section: Volume B


NEW QUESTION # 26
What is the purpose of TCP flow control?

  • A. It forces the sender to send only one segment at a time.
  • B. It restricts the sender from sending too much data when there is congestion in the network.
  • C. It allows the receiver to drop segments without the sender having to retransmit.
  • D. It allows the receiver to control the rate at which the sender transmits data.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 27
A network with address 208.40.224.0/24 is divided into /28 subnets. What is the network address of the third subnet?

  • A. 208.40.224.64/28
  • B. 208.40.224.16/28
  • C. 208.40.224.48/28
  • D. 208.40.224.32/28

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following is a characteristic of ATM?

  • A. All of the above.
  • B. Application data is transported in 53-byte cells.
  • C. ATM circuits are identified by a VPI/VCI value.
  • D. Ideal for multiple services on the same physical line.
  • E. None of the above
  • F. Provides enhanced QoS support with 5 classes of service.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Section: Volume A


NEW QUESTION # 29
What bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

  • A. A string of 0s
  • B. There is no specific bit pattern to identify the network address.
  • C. A string of 1s
  • D. A string of alternating 10s

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume A


NEW QUESTION # 30
An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram. How many collision domains are on this LAN?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following are important to consider when designing IPv4 subnets? (Choose 3)

  • A. Future network growth requirements.
  • B. The number of subnetworks currently required.
  • C. The version of the Ethernet used by each segment.
  • D. The number of hosts each subnetwork will support.
  • E. The class of the IP address assigned to an organization.

Answer: A,B,D


NEW QUESTION # 32
What is the sequence of events for a client to receive an IP address from the server in the DHCP?

  • A. Discover, request, offer, acknowledgement.
  • B. Discover, offer, request, acknowledgement.
  • C. Request, offer, discover, acknowledgement.
  • D. Request, acknowledgement, discover, offer.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 33
With a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, which of the IP addresses below are valid host addresses?
(Choose all that apply)

  • A. 87.99.12.159
  • B. 192.11.25.87
  • C. 95.11.22.93
  • D. 17.23.119.63

Answer: B,C


NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?

  • A. Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and are assigned by IANA.
  • B. Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
  • C. Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
  • D. Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to 1023 and are assigned by IANA.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Section: Volume A


NEW QUESTION # 35
Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button). Router 1 installs network D in its routing table following a dynamic routing update from Router 2. Which of the following describes the information that will be installed in the routing table?

  • A. 172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.1
  • B. 0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 172.16.9.1
  • C. 172.16.9.0.24 next-hop 10.10 10 3
  • D. 172.16.9.0/24 next-hop 10.10.10.2

Answer: C

Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation/Reference:


NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following are TRUE statements about the router ID in OSPF? Choose two

  • A. On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, the router ID is set to the highest logical IP address if router-id is not explicitly set.
  • B. The router ID is used to uniquely identify every OSPF router.
  • C. A router ID is not required by OSPF.
  • D. The system address is used as the router ID if router-id is not set.

Answer: B,D


NEW QUESTION # 37
......


Alcatel-Lucent Scalable IP Networks Certification Exam, also known as the 4A0-100 exam, is a globally recognized certification that validates the skills and knowledge of networking professionals in designing, implementing, and managing large-scale IP networks using Alcatel-Lucent technologies. 4A0-100 exam is designed for network engineers, architects, and administrators who are responsible for building and maintaining complex IP networks.

 

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